Medipol Üniversitesi İngilizce Muafiyet Sınavı
Medipol Üniversitesi İngilizce Muafiyet Sınavı
İSTANBUL MEDİPOL ÜNİVERSİTESİ
İNGİLİZCE DİL EĞİTİMİ VE İNGİLİZCE HAZIRLIK PROGRAMI
İşleyiş ve Kurallar
Öğretim Dili:
İstanbul Medipol Üniversitesi’nin genelinde eğitim dili Türkçedir. Ancak Mühendislik ve Doğa Bilimleri Fakültesi Biyomedikal Mühendisliği ve Elektrik ve Elektronik Mühendisliği Bölümleri ve Uluslararası Tıp Fakültesi’nin eğitim dili (%100) İngilizce’dir. Ayrıca Tıp Fakültesi ve Diş Hekimliği Fakültelerin de bazı bölüm dersleri (%30) İngilizce okutulduğu için bu bölümlerde (%30 ve %100) zorunlu İngilizce hazırlık eğitimi vardır. Üniversitede bu bölümlere kabul edilen veya başka üniversitelerden yatay geçiş hakkı kazanan ve geldikleri üniversitelerde hazırlık okumamış öğrenciler İngilizce yeterliklerini kanıtlamak için Üniversitenin Hazırlık Programı tarafından hazırlanan İstanbul Medipol Üniversitesi Dil Yeterlilik Sınavı’na ( Proficiency Exam ) girmek zorundadır.
İstanbul Medipol Üniversitesi Dil Yeterlilik Sınavı (Proficiency Exam) Nedir? Ne zaman yapılacak? İçeriği Nedir?
Soru sayısı : 100 adet çoktan seçmeli
Süre : 160 dakika
Tanımı : Bu sınavdaki sorular öğrencinin kelime bilgisi, okuma, dinleme, anlama ve dil kullanım becerilerini ölçmeyi hedefler.
| ÖLÇÜLEN BECERİ |
SÜRE |
SORU TİPLERİ |
SORU SAYISI |
|
DİNLEME & ANLAMA |
160 dakika |
1. DİNLERKEN CEVAPLAMA ( While listening ) 2. NOT ALMA (Note taking ) |
15 SORU |
|
OKUMA |
OKUDUĞUNU ANLAMA – ANA FİKİR BULMA – ÇIKARIMDA BULUNMA – REFERANSLARI BULMA – KELİMEYİ TAHMİN ETME |
30 SORU |
|
|
DİL KULLANIMI |
YETERLİK ÖLÇEN SORULAR – CÜMLE TAMAMLAMA – EŞ ANLAMLI CÜMLEYİ BULMA – PARAGRAF TAMAMLAMA – ANLAMI BOZAN CÜMLEYI BULMA – DİL BİLGİSİ |
30 SORU |
|
|
KELİME BİLGİSİ |
GENEL VE AKADEMİK KELİME BİLGİSİ |
25 SORU |
* İstanbul Medipol Üniversitesi Hazırlık Programı tarafından hazırlanan “Dil Yeterlilik ( Proficiency Exam )” sınavından altmış (60) puan ile yetmiş dört (74) puan arası alan öğrenciler bölümündeki İngilizce dersleri takip edip edemeyeceklerine kanaat getirmek amacıyla Konuşma ( Speaking Exam ) sınavına tabii tutulurlar. Bu sınavdan alacağı puan ile yazılı bölümden aldığı puanının ortalaması 75 ve üzerinde olanlar İngilizce Hazırlık Programından muaf olabilirler.
* Yazılı sınavdan 75 ve üstü alan öğrenciler “Speaking” ( konuşma ) sınavına gerek kalmaksızın İngilizce Hazırlık Programından muaf olabilirler.
HAZIRLIK PROGRAMI HAKKINDA BİLGİ:
Alanında uzman bir ekibe sahip olan İngilizce Hazırlık Programı, bölüm derslerinin yüzde otuzunu (%30) İngilizce olarak gören öğrencilerimize yabancı dili etkili şekilde kullanma becerisini sağlamak için hizmet vermektedir. Buna göre öğrencilerimizin ihtiyaçlarına yönelik şekilde hazırlanmış olan Medipol Üniversitesi İngilizce Hazırlık programı iki seviyeden oluşmaktadır. Başlangıç seviyesi (Avrupa Ortak Dil Kriterleri Bildirgesine göre A1) ve İleri Başlangıç (Avrupa Ortak Dil Kriterleri Bildirgesine göre A2).
A1 ve A2 seviyesi 33 haftaya göre programlanmıştır. Haftalık ders saati 26 saattir ve her ders 45 dakikadan oluşmaktadır. 33 haftanın sonunda öğrencilerimizin İngilizceyi doğru ve akıcı bir şekilde kullanabildikleri B2+ (İleri Seviye) seviyesine gelmeleri beklenmektedir. Yoğun İngilizce programımız öğrencilerimize gerekli temel becerileri kazandıracak, İngilizceyi küreselleşen dünyada ve kendi kariyerlerinde akıcı bir şekilde kullanmalarını sağlayacaktır. Bu yoğun program süresince temel dil becerilerini kullanmanın yanı sıra, bir dil için gerekli olan dört temel unsuru; dil bilgisi, konuşma, yazma ve dinleme becerilerini etkili bir şekilde kullanmayı öğrenmiş olacaklardır. İngilizceyi etkili şekilde kullanabilme becerileri öğrencilere akademik okuma parçalarını anlama, yorumlama ve farklı alanlarda bilimsel ve akademik makaleler yazma becerileri kazandıracaktır. Öğrenci, bu yoğun programı başarılı şekilde bitirdiğinde kendi alanında verilen dersleri rahatlıkla takip edebilecek seviyede İngilizce bilgisine sahip olur.
Hazırlık Programı öğretim amaçlarının gerektirdiği gibi etkili, verimli ve öğrencinin ihtiyaçlarına cevap verebilecek şekilde hazırlanmıştır. Seviye programları başlamadan önce, öğrencilerin dil seviyelerini belirlemek ve onları kendi dil seviyelerine uygun sınıflara yerleştirmek için öğrencilerimize “Seviye belirleme ( Placement Test )” uygulanacaktır. Öğrencilerin bu sınavdan aldıkları notlar sadece sınıf belirlemek için kullanılacak; öğrencinin ortalamasında herhangi bir etkisi olmayacaktır. Akademik yıl boyunca öğrencilerin ilerleme durumlarını görmek, eksikliklerini saptamak için birçok test yapılmaktadır, böylece hem öğrenciler hem de öğretim görevlileri karşılarına çıkabilecek İngilizceyle alakalı problemleri ortadan kaldırma veya minimum seviyeye düşürme imkânına sahip olacaklardır.
Hazırlık Programı küresel ve çağdaş bir dil eğitimine uygun şekilde düzenlenmiştir. Haftalık ders programı 26 saatten oluşmaktadır ve bu 26 saat içerisinde Temel ders ( Main Course ), Dilbilgisi (Grammar), Akademik Okuma, (Academic Reading), Dinleme (Listening), Konuşma (Speaking), Akademik Makale Yazma (Academic Writing).
Seçilen metotlar çağdaş dil eğitim sistemlerinde kabul edilen ve öğrencilerin ihtiyaçlarına, seviyelerine ve gelişimlerine uygun olan metotlardır. Hazırlık Programımızda temel amaçlarımız öğrencilerimize iyi bir dil eğitimi vermenin yanı sıra, dil eğitiminin kaçınılmaz bir süreci olan hedef dilin kullanıldığı ülkelerin kültürel yapısını ve o kültürle alakalı bir bilgilendirme de yapmaktır. Yukarıda da belirtildiği gibi, en öncelikli amacımız öğrencinin dili anlaması, anladığını ifade edebilmesi, yazıya dökebilmesi ve kendi akademik çalışmalarında kullanabilmesidir.
Dersler boyunca öğrencilerimize teoriyle beraber pratik yapabilme, zaman içerisinde testler, ilgili konuyla alakalı çalışma soruları, bilgilendirme broşürleri ve görsel objeler verilecektir. Bunun yanında seçtiğimiz dil öğrenme metotları öğrencilerimize yalnız başına çalışabilme imkânı sağlayacak, konuyla alakalı onları yönlendirecek ve onlara yol gösterecektir. Önemini vurgulamayı uygun gördüğümüz bir diğer nokta ise kelime öğretimidir; öğrencilerimiz her eğitim dilimi boyunca ortalama 1000-1200 yeni kelime öğrenmiş olacaklar. Bu kelimeleri günlük hayatta hem konuşurken hem de kompozisyon veya makale yazarken etkili şekilde kullanabileceklerdir.
Üniversitemiz hazırlık okulunda görev yapan öğretim görevlilerimiz, yıllarca hazırlık okullarında görev yapmış, İngilizce eğitim alanında yurtiçi ve yurtdışında farklı teknikler ve metodoloji üzerine birçok sertifikaya sahip, gayretli, tecrübeli eğitimcilerdir. Öğretim görevlilerimiz, hafta içinde ders dışı zamanlarda öğrencilerle birebir veya gruplar halinde çalışabilmek için zamanlarını ayıracak ve bunu bir program dahilinde öğrencilere bildireceklerdir. Etkili bir dil eğitimi için grupları oluşturan öğrenci sayısı minimal seviyede tutulacak, çalışma ortamı öğrencilerin ihtiyaçlarına göre hazırlanacaktır.
HAZIRLIK PROGRAMI SINAVLARI:
Hazırlık Programı’nda eğitim 5 dilime ayrılmıştır. Bu 5 dilimde toplam;
5 dilim sonu final sınavı ( Final Exam ),
4 Vize Sınavı ( Mid-term Exam ),
1 Yılsonu final sınavı ( PLAT Preparatory Language Achievement Test ) vardır.
Ayrıca süresi 5 ile 7 hafta olarak değişen her dilimde (Track ) birçok küçük sınav (Quiz) yapılmaktadır.
SINAVLAR & İÇERİKLERİ
QUIZ:
Öğrencilerin gelişimlerini sürekli takip edebilmek, çıkabilecek ihtiyaçlara göre müfredatı güncelleyebilmek ve öğrencilere eksik oldukları konularla alakalı olarak geri dönüşüm verebilmek amacıyla sık olarak yapılan sınavlardır. Quizlerin bir diğer önemli amacı ise öğrencileri her dilim ortası ve sonunda yapılacak olan vize ve dilim sonu final sınavına hazırlamaktır. Quiz’ler haftalık durum değerlendirmeleridir ve öğrencinin sınava gelememesi durumunda tekrarlanmazlar.
Dilim Ortası Vize Sınavları ( Mid-term Exams ):
Birinci dilim hariç her dilim ortasında yapılan vize sınavları hem öğrencinin dönem içinde teşvik edilmesi, hem de final sınavının yükünün hafifletilip öğrencilerin “telafisi zor tek sınav” gerginliğini azaltıp, eğitim öğretimin daha adil ve etkin olmasına hizmet etmektedir.
Dilim Sonu Final Sınavları ( Final Exams ):
Bu sınavların amacı öğrencinin dilim boyunca öğrenmiş olduğu konuların test edilmesidir. Dilim sonu final sınavları her dilim sonunda öğrencilerin bir üst seviyeye geçebilmesi için uygulanan sınavlardır. Bu sınavlar 5 bölüme odaklanmıştır: İngilizcenin Kullanımı ve Kelime Bilgisi ( Use of English & Vocabulary ), Okuma- Anlama ( Reading Comprehension ), Yazma ( Writing ), Dinleme- (Listening ), Konuşma (Speaking). Sınavlar uygun görülmesine göre Konuşma ve/veya Yazma bölümlerini içermeyebilir.
Yılsonu Final Sınavı ( PLAT Preparatory Language Achievement Test ) :
PLAT Üniversitemizin Yabancı Dil başarı sınavıdır. PLAT The Common European Framework of Reference (CEFR) a göre B2+ seviyesinde bir sınavdır. Bu sınavın Yıl İçi Değerlendirme Kriterindeki ağırlığının da %30 olduğu unutulmamalıdır. PLAT 5 bölümden oluşmaktadır; İngilizcenin Kullanımı ve Kelime Bilgisi ( Use of English & Vocabulary ), Okuma- Anlama ( Reading Comprehension ), Yazma ( Writing ), Dinleme- Anlama ( Listening ).
PLAT BÖLÜMLERİ & BÖLÜM AĞIRLIKLARI
| BÖLÜM | YÜZDELİK AĞIRLIĞI |
| İngilizcenin Kullanımı ve Kelime Bilgisi ( Use of English & Vocabulary ) | % 45 |
| Okuma- Anlama ( Reading Comprehension ) | % 40 |
| Dinleme Anlatım ( Listening ) | % 15 |
* 5 Dilim sonunda Dilimlerin Değerlendirme Ortalaması 85 ve üzerinde olan öğrenciler PLAT ten muaftır.
HAZIRLIK PROGRAMINDAN BAŞARILI OLMA VE BÖLÜMDE OKUMAYA HAK KAZANMA KRİTERLERİ:
Hazırlık sınıfının ikinci yarıyılı sonunda yapılan yabancı dil sınavında ( PLAT ) başarılı olamayan öğrenci, ilave iki yarıyıl daha hazırlık sınıfına devam ederek ya da yabancı dil bilgisini kendi imkânlarıyla geliştirerek yılın belirli dönemlerinde yapılan Hazırlık Muafiyet Sınavından (Proficiency Exam) başarılı olduğu takdirde girmeye hak kazandığı yabancı dille verilen lisans öğretim programına devam edebilir.
Medipol Üniversitesi Öğretim dili Türkçe olmakla birlikte, programında kısmen veya tamamen yabancı dille okutulan seçmeli derslere yer verilen fakülte öğrencileri, hazırlık sınıfında, ikinci yarıyıl sonunda veya isteğe bağlı olarak devam ettikleri takdirde üçüncü veya dördüncü yarıyıl sonunda yapılan yabancı dil sınavında başarılı olamasalar bile, lisans programına devam edebilirler. Ancak bu öğrenciler yabancı dille okutulan dersleri alamazlar. Bu dersleri alabilmeleri için kesinlikle Hazırlık Muafiyet Sınavını ( Proficiency Exam ) geçmek zorundadırlar. Aksi takdirde bölümlerinden mezun olmaları olanaksızdır.
Proficiency_2013-2014 (FINALIZED)
2013-14 Proficiency Note Taking[Ses Dosyası]
2013-14 Proficiency While Listening[Ses Dosyası]
– See more at: http://www.medipol.edu.tr/Sayfa/281/Hazirlik-Programi/Yeterlilik-Sinavi-Hk.aspx#sthash.iuOxCxKL.dpuf
Medipol Üniversitesi alanında uzman bir ekibe sahip olan İngilizce Hazırlık Programı, bölüm derslerinin yüzde otuzu İngilizce olan öğrencilerimize yabancı dili etkili şekilde kullanma imkanı sağlayacaktır. Buna göre öğrencilerimizin ihtiyaçlarına uygun şekilde hazırlanmış olan Medipol Üniversitesi İngilizce programı iki seviyeden oluşmaktadır. Başlangıç seviyesi (A1; Avrupa Ortak Dil Kriterleri Bildirgesine göre) ve Orta seviye ( A2; Avrupa Ortak Dil Kriterleri Bildirgesine göre) A1 seviyesi 32 haftaya göre programlanmıştır. Haftalık ders saati 26 dur ve her ders 45 dakikadan oluşmaktadır. 32 haftanın sonunda öğrencilerimizin herhangi bir problem yaşamadan İngilizceyi doğru ve akıcı bir şekilde kullanabilecekleri C1 seviyesine gelmeleri beklenmektedir. Yoğun İngilizce programımız Medipol Üniversitesi öğrencilerimize gerekli temel becerileri kazandıracak, İngilizceyi küreselleşen dünyada ve kendi kariyerlerinde akıcı bir şekilde kullanmalarını sağlayacaktır. Bu yoğun program süresince temel dil becerilerini kullanmanın yanı sıra bir dil için gerekli olan dört temel unsuru; dil bilgisi, konuşma, yazma ve dinleme becerilerini etkili bir şekilde kullanmayı öğrenmiş olacaklar. İngilizceyi etkili şekilde kullanabilme becerileri öğrencilere akademik okuma parçalarını anlama ve farklı alanlarda bilimsel ve akademik makaleler yazma becerileri kazandıracaktır. Öğrenci bu yoğun programı bitirdiği zaman ona verilecek sertifika öğrencinin programı başarıyla bitirdiğini ve kendi alanında İngilizce olarak verilen dersleri rahatlıkla takip edebileceğini kanıtlamaktadır
ENGLISH PREPARATORY PROGRAMME
PROFICIENCY EXAM
First Part: Listening
You will listen to a tutor and two students –Emily and Denis- discussing about an assignment. Answer the following questions in accordance to the excerpt after having heard it twice and made the necessary notes.
1. What is the main point of the assignment?
a) The historical development of television
b) The historical development of mass media
c) The development of the new media
d) The cultural future of television
2. According to Emily, which new technology will become the biggest competition for television?
a) Ipods b) Mobile Phones c) PC d) Video Games
3. According to the tutor, the average length of a TV program might become
a) 45 minutes b) 54 minutes b) 10 minutes d) four to five minutes
4. What part of the library is going to be closed for a week?
a) The New Extension Building b) The Sociology Section
c) The Media Studies Section d) The Journals Section
5. Which body do they decide to complain to?
a) The Premises Committee b) The Students’ Union
c) The Academic Staff d) The Library Staff
6. What will the reprographics office do?
a) Email the student’s dissertation to the tutor
b) Send the student’s dissertation to the tutor after printing it
c) Send the student’s dissertation to the student after printing it
d) Send the student’s dissertation to the copying office
7. What does the tutor think of “Youtube”?
a) He thinks it is an interesting website worth investigating in the assignment.
b) He wants both students to focus on the homemade videos on “Youtube”, but not on the
website itself.
c) He wants only Emily to focus on the “Youtube” phenomenon in general
d) He doesn’t want any of the students to focus on either “Youtube” or the videos there.
8. What does the tutor compare homemade videos with?
a) Ipods b) Broadcast c) Pod Cast d) Body Cast
9. What is the title of Mrs. Jones’s lecture?
a) Culture & Society b) Culture & University
c) Society & University d) Society & Theatre
10. How did Denis find the reading list?
a) Puzzling b) Comprehensive c) Unrelated d) Helpful
Second Part
Choose the best answers to fill in the blanks.
11. This is ____ restaurant in town.
a) the most expensive b) more expensive c) most expensive d) expensive
12. People say ____.
a) I read fastly b) I fastly read c) I read fast d) I fast read
13. What _______ Simon for his birthday?
a) about buying b) shall we buy c) to buy d) let’s buy
14. There _______in Istanbul. Traffic is one of them.
a) is a lot of problem b) are a lot of problems
c) is a lot of problems d) are a lots of problem
15. Young men who ____to violent wartime experiences ____from psychological problems in later life.
a) exposed/ are suffering b) are exposed/ would have suffered
c) have been exposed/ may suffer d) are being exposed / have been suffered
16. By the end of this 13- week course, you ____ a 5-page argumentative research paper.
a) wrote b) will have written c) have written d) will have been writing
17. Mary keeps taking time off from her studies to travel around the world, but she hopes she______ by the time she______ twenty-five.
a) has graduated/ will be b) graduated/ has been
c) will have graduated /is d) had graduated /was
18. In Istanbul it is always a good idea to have a big water storage tank______ the water is cut off without notice.
a) whichever b) despite c) in case d) until
19. _____ the efforts of municipal authorities, the public transportation system has improved dramatically.
a) Owing to b) In order to c) So that d) Besides
20. Tim isn’t_____ to have a drivers’ license.
a) enough old b) old enough c) old for d) very old
21. Having won the lottery, he has more money than he had ever dreamed of; ______ this he has decided not to make any radical changes in his life.
a) nevertheless b) instead of c) despite d) otherwise
22. A: How long have you been living with your grandparents?
B: ____ the last two years. It’s been fun with them.
a) For b) Since c) From d) Before
23. Turkey, ______ capital is Ankara, is a country in the Middle East.
a) whose b) that c) which d) of which
24. Luckily, we’ve finished everything today, so we______ on Saturday.
a) needn’t work b) may not work c) haven’t worked d) don’t work
25. People___ it more and more difficult to get by because prices ___ so rapidly.
a)had found/ would rise b)find /are rising
c)found/ have risen d)have found /were rising
26. A: Are you interested in mountain climbing?
B: Very! Mountains are _______.
a) fascinated b) being fascinated c) fascinating d) being fascinating
27. We______ to Jason’s party on Friday night but we can’t think of a decent excuse.
a) weren’t supposed to go b) didn’t have to go
c) haven’t been able to go d) would rather not go
28. Helen is_____ music. She can play the piano____
a) good at/good b) good at/well c) well at/good d) well at/well
29.I wish I ……………..in such an expensive part of town because it is getting difficult to pay the rent.
a) haven’t lived b) didn’t live c) hadn’t lived d) don’t live
30. Sue is afraid ____ cats. Whenever she sees one, she immediately runs away.
a) from b) over c) of d) on
31. She always complains ____ the weather.
a) with b) about c) for d) in
32. ____ he said was true, but _____believed him.
a) Anything/anybody b) Anything/everybody
c) Everything/nobody d) Everything/anybody
33. What would you do if you_____ the lottery?
a) win b) had won c) would win d) won
34. That mosque is very old. It ______ long ago.
a) must be built b) must have been built
c) might have been built d) might be built
35. A: I don’t know why he told my secret to everyone.
B: Oh, don’t you know that he always does the same thing. You ____ him your secret.
a) shouldn’t have told b) couldn’t have told
c) mustn’t have told d) might not have told
36. I was late to work this morning because I____ by a dentist.
a)had my tooth fill b)had filled my tooth
c)had my tooth filled d)had my tooth to fill
37. World War III _____ in the near future. But it’s not very likely, I think.
a) will break out b) is going to break out
c) might break out d) would break out
38. All the students _____Sam were in class yesterday.
a) only b) unless c) the exception d)except
39. He _____live in the country than in the city.
a) prefers b) likes better to c) had better d) would rather
40. Due to _______ on the road, we arrived late.
a) there was bad traffic b) bad traffic c) being bad traffic d) traffic there was
41. This book is very difficult for children aged ten, so I’m afraid you will have to ____it.
a) adjust b)fit c) adapt d) focus
42. I didn’t realize everyone was going to wear a suit and I felt ______ in my jeans and T-shirt.
a) embarrassed b)annoyed c)worried d)serious
43. The thing I like about him is his _____. He always tells me the truth.
a) obedience b) goodness c) honesty d) patience
44. If you’ve got a student card you can get into the exhibition free of______
a) cost b) price c) charge d) expense
45. While my parents were out I took the____ for taking care of my sisters.
a)statement b)relationship c)responsibility d)participation
46. We will get as near as we can to your requirements but we may not be able to ____ all your needs.
a) meet b) encounter c) measure d) face
47. Color blindness, or color vision_____, in humans is the inability to perceive differences between some of the colors that other people can distinguish.
a) determination b) delusion c) objection d) deficiency
48. A: Have I seen you somewhere before?
B:________________________
A: But your face is so familiar. Wait a second!. I know. We were on the same flight to New York last week.
B: Oh, yes. Now I remember.
a) I think so. b) I don’t think so. c) Yes, what a surprise! d) No, we haven’t
49. A: -Have you listened to the weather report today?
B: -Not yet, why?
A: _____.
B: -These days weather changes quickly.
a) We were going to have a picnic b) It is said to be sunny today
c) The weather is getting misty d) We are waiting for some guests
Complete sentences 50-53 with the alternative that fits the best.
50. _____________ though she carefully kept it from me.
a) She mentioned to Roberta about her new boyfriend
b) I’m surprised to hear about the problems she faced there
c) I’ve tried to make my daughter talk to me
d) Kim tells me almost everything that happens at school
51. _____________which has a wonderful view of the harbor.
a) The restaurant onGalataTowerserves specialties of Turkish cuisine
b) My friend, Jason, lived in the same house for more than ten years
c) Whenever I have a little time, I love climbing up Shooter Hill
d) Most of the flats in this block are a little cold as they face north
52. Despite abundant rain throughout the winter, ___________
a) the city is still suffering from a shortage of water this summer
b) when there were severe floods destroying a large part of the region
c) it was after a long period, without a drop of rain for many month
d) irrigation is only necessary for a few farms where they grow vegetables
53. Are you aware that we will have been waiting here for four straight hours___________?
a) if we had toured around the city instead of coming here so early
b) since they last made an announcement about the fate of our flight
c) what time exactly is the plane going to take off
d) by the time the plane leaves at eight, after a two-hour delay
In questions 54-57 choose the alternative that has the closest meaning to the given statement.
54. Without his help, the job would have been impossible.
a) Even though he was very helpful, we were still unable to complete the project.
b) Since he wasn’t able to give us a hand, we didn’t believe we would be able to finish the job.
c) There’s no way the task could have been done if he had not provided assistance.
d) The assignment proved quite easy, even though he refused to give us aid.
55. Having arrived at the church, Martin sat down at the front listening to the music.
a) After Martin had arrived at the church, he heard a lovely music at the front.
b) After he had arrived at the church, Martin sat down at the front and listened to the music.
c) In order to sit down at the front and listen to the music he arrived at the church early.
d) Martin found a seat at the front because he came to the church early.
56. Despite the difference in the political ideas, decisions were taken by consensus.
a) Although there were different political ideas, most of the members accepted the idea.
b) In spite of the different political ideas, they all used their votes.
c) They forced the politicians to take decisions together.
d) Although there were different political ideas, all of the members accepted the ideas.
57. Unless you help, we may not complete the project.
a) If you help, it isn’t possible that we cope with the project.
b) If you don’t help, we won’t complete the project.
c) Provided you help, it is likely that we will overcome the project.
d) Devoid of your help, we must complete the project.
58. Bob walked into his house to find that his dog and two cats had gotten into a frenzy. Cushions from his couch had been ripped open and emptied, the pumpkin pie he’d set out onto the counter to cool that morning had been knocked to the floor and devoured, and his parakeet was still trembling, perched on the highest bar inside its cage.
Which of the following is the BEST synonym for “frenzy”?
a) struggle b) parade c) riot d) celebration
59. I asked my teacher whether or not I was going to pass for the last six weeks. Still seated at her desk, bent over a stack of essays that she had not yet graded, she looked up at me, narrowed her eyes, and gave me an ambiguous smirk, looked back down at her work and said nothing.
Which of the following is the BEST antonym for “ambiguous”?
a) clear b) vague c)obnoxious d) sinister
Fill in the blanks with the most appropriate options 60-69
Petroleum, or crude oil, is one of the world’s _60 _ natural resources. Plastics, synthetic fibers, and _61_ chemicals are produced from petroleum. It is also used to make lubricants and waxes. _62_ , its most important use is as a fuel for heating, for _63_ electricity, and _64 _ for powering vehicles.
60. a) as important b) most important c) so important d) too important
61. a) much b) a lot c) plenty d) many
62. a) Therefore b) However c) Moreover d) Hence
63. a) generated b) to generate c) generate d) generating
64. a) exclusively b) especially c) favorably d) notably
The Cuban Missile Crisis was a _65_ between the United States of America, the Soviet Union, and Cuba __66__the Cold War. The Russians call it the “Caribbean Crisis,” while the Cubans call it the “October Crisis”. The crisis _67_with the Berlin Blockade as one of the major confrontations of the Cold War. _68_, it is often regarded as the moment in which the Cold War came closest to escalating into a nuclear war. The climax period of the crisis began on October 14, 1962, when U.S. reconnaissance photographs taken by an American U-2 spy plane _69_missile bases being built in Cuba, and ended two weeks later on October 28, 1962, when U.S. President John F. Kennedy and the intercession of U.N. Secretary-General, U Thant, reached an agreement that Cuba was no threat toward the United States.
65. a) misleading b) condolences c) argument d) confrontation
66. a) during b) over c) when d) the moment
67. a) matures b) ranks c) comprises d) deals
68. a) However b) Much as c) Hence d) Only if
69. a) had revealed b) revealed c) were revealing d) would reveal
70. Complete the following paragraph with the appropriate sentence
Internet is the greatest revolution we have witnessed in this century. The world seems to have got smaller through it. Internet was first used to transmit information and connect military institutions._______. You can send emails and faxes, chat as well as make business.
a) Today it has a vast field of usage and easiness
b) It also has commercial benefits
c) Many people use it while they are working in the office
d) No matter how far you are to your computer
71. Find the odd sentence
Last night, I saw a beautiful village in my dream. I) In it there was a river surrounded by a valley. II) What was terrifying was that while I was passing across the river, I noticed somebody watching me. III) I dislike that kind of persons. IV) Then, he was approaching me with a knife in his hand.
a) I b) II c) III d) IV
72. Arrange the following sentences:
i) When the NACHB (National Council for Handicapped Business Man) was first founded, it assisted the handicapped only by placing orders with their firms.
ii) Two years ago, the NACHB founded a special program which helps handicapped businessmen and women actually start their own businesses.
iii) Five years ago, it instituted weekly seminars where Council members share their expertise with participants on such subjects as advertising, management, and other areas particularly relevant to the participants.
iv) Since its inception, the Council has found many other ways of helping the disabled.
a) ii), i), iii), iv) b) i), iii), iv), ii) c) i), iv), iii), ii) d) iv), ii), i), iii)
73. Arrange the following paragraphs;
i) The pilot did trick flying to get near the other planes. The planes flew sideways and upside down. As the plane rolled over, it lost power.
ii) Where had the camera landed? Months later, a person found it and took it to a camera store. The store owner said that it was not damaged.
iii) An airplane flew high in the sky. In it were a pilot and one passenger with a camera. The passenger was using the camera to take pictures of other planes.
iv) “Jump!” cried the pilot. They left the plane. The passenger held the camera until the parachute opened. Then the camera slipped and fell.
a) i), iv), iii), ii) b) iii), i), iv), ii) c) ii), i), iv), iii) d) iv), ii), i), iii)
74. Read again the above paragraphs. Which of the following options would be the best title for all the paragraphs?
a) The plane that lost power b) A camera that fell
c) A person found the camera d) The passenger and the pilot left the plane
Third Part
Read the following passages and choose the best answers to the questions about them.
Thomas More was a humanist with a true love for learning. Known as a leader, he recognized that leadership is a gift from God for the common good of humankind and the duty of that gift was a life of service to all. A dedicated family man, he was also a brilliant intellectual, patron of the arts, statesman, scholar, philosopher, and author whose writings have enriched our culture and literature. Educated atOxford, he practiced law and entered the service of King Henry VIII as royal counselor, ambassador, and Lord Chancellor. He was a man of conscience with a strong faith in God and an intense concern for the problems of his day. He was executed as he rejected to compromise his deeply held principles and values. As a person of wide and varied interests that exhibited high standards of honor, Thomas More is an inspiration to students that seek to develop through their education the knowledge and values upon which they will base their lives, their careers, and service to others.
75. Thomas More thought that____
a) a person should be adorable by others
b) a leader is always observed by his rivals
c) people must always be faithful to god
d) someone endowed with leadership who has a duty to serve mankind
76. Thomas More was a religious man ____
a) he was totally interested in theology
b) but he was aware of the problems of his day as well
c) he never neglected helping others
d) he used to have unusual interests
77. Despite the fact that Thomas More was executed as he refused to compromise his deeply held principles and values ____
a) he is an inspiration to students who seek to develop through their education the
knowledge and values upon which they will base their lives.
b) his views have been proved to be right now
c) he was the one to have been honored during his time
d) he sacrificed his successful career for the sake of his ideals
Many theorists agree that social contact early in a child’s life is crucial for healthy personality development. This is the most significant relationship of the child development period as it is from this that the child drives its confidence in the world. A break from this relationship is experienced as highly distressing and constitutes a considerable trauma. Through frequent social and emotional exchanges with parents the infant not only defines itself, but also acquires a particular style and orientation which some researchers believe is carried over into later life. Thus, the relationship between an infant and its care giver and its development is one that has generated much interest to developmental psychologists.
78. In accordance with the paragraph, an infant defines itself____
a) to examine the role and significance of attachment behaviors in development
b) there is an emotional regulation between the infant and the mother or caregiver
c) through frequent social and emotional exchanges with parents
d) through smiling and eye-to-eye contacts
79. In the paragraph, a lack of social contact is considered as ____
a) an attachment of restricted relationship between particular social figures
b) child psychology, and a particular phenomenon to reflect unique characteristics of the
relationship
b) a care and protection during the most vulnerable period of development
d) highly distressing constituent of a sizeable trauma
80. It can be understood from the paragraph that. ____
a) the infant’s behavior is directed by the primary goal of maintaining the mother’s
closeness
b) the child drives his or her confidence by means of social contact
c) the infant’s attachment focuses on one figure, typically the primary caregiver
d) the infant now readily seeks the closeness to the caregiver
WORKAHOLISM
Most workers spend eight or nine hours on the job. They work because it’s unavoidable. They need to make enough money for necessities: food, rent, clothing, transportation, tuition, and so on. They spend about one third of their lives at work, but they hate it. They complain and count the minutes until quitting time each day – or the days until their next vacation.
By contrast, there are some people who actually enjoy work – in fact, they love to work. They spend many extra hours on the job each week and often take work home with them. These workaholics are addicted to their jobs as other people are to drugs or alcohol. In some urban centers, workaholism is so common that people do not consider it unusual: they accept the life style as normal. Government workers inWashington,D.C., for example, frequently work sixty to seventy hours a week. They don’t do this because they have to; they do it because they want to. Hundreds of workaholics inNew York Citytried to go to work even in the famous blackout of 1977. There was no electricity – no air-conditioning, elevators, or lights – but many people went to their offices, anyway. They sat impatiently on the steps outside their office buildings and did paperwork and had business meetings.
Workaholism can be a serious problem. Because true workaholics would rather work than do anything else, they probably don’t know how to relax; that is, they might not enjoy movies, sports, or other types of entertainment. Most of all, they hate to sit and do nothing. This inability to rest may cause health problems, such as heart attacks. In addition, typical workaholics don’t pay much attention to their families. They spend little time with their children, and their marriages may end in divorce.
Is workaholism always dangerous? Perhaps not. Some studies show that many workaholics have great energy and interest in life. Their work is so pleasurable that they are actually happy. For most workaholics, work and entertainment are the same thing. Their jobs provide them with a challenge; this keeps them busy and creative. Other people retire from work at age sixty-five, but workaholics usually prefer not to quit. They are still enthusiastic about work – and life – in there eighties and nineties.
Why do workaholics enjoy their jobs so much? There are several advantages to work. Of course, it provides people with paychecks, and this is important. But it offers more than financial security. It provides people with self – confidence; they have a feeling of satisfaction when they’ve produced a challenging piece of work and are able to say, “I made that.” Psychologists claim that work gives people an identity; through participation in work, they get a sense of self and individualism. In addition, most jobs provide people with a social acceptable way to meet others. Perhaps some people are compulsive about their work, but their addiction seems to be a safe – even an advantageous – one.
81. What does Workaholism mean?
a) having a feeling of self-satisfaction
b) loving to work and spending extra hours at work
c) counting the minutes until quitting time each day
d) working to make enough money for necessities
82. According to the passage, in what point are workaholics similar to alcoholics?
a) They find happiness and self-confidence in the same thing.
b) They are both addicted to something.
c) They both do not have good family relationships.
d) Alcoholics bring alcohol and workaholics bring work home with them.
83. Which of the following problems is not mentioned as an effect of workaholism?
a) Workaholics never rest and this causes some health problems.
b) Workaholics are not interested in entertainment activities like sports.
c) Their marriage does not last long and often end in divorce.
d) Their children often fail in their lessons because of problems at home.
84. Why do workaholics not want to retire until 80’s or 90’s?
a) Because they think that no one can do their jobs as well as they do.
b) Because their jobs provide them with paychecks.
c) Because their jobs give them a challenging atmosphere and this makes them busy
and creative.
d) Because their jobs offer them financial security and they need money at their old ages.
85. How does the work that workaholics do make them self-confident?
a) By securing them financially and providing them with paychecks.
b) By giving a sense of satisfaction after producing a challenging piece of work.
c) By providing them with identity
d) By providing them with socially acceptable ways to meet others.
86. What does “this” in the 5th paragraph mean?
a) financial security b) several advantages to work
c) enjoying their jobs d) providing people with paychecks
87. What does “one” in the 5th paragraph mean?
a) workaholic b)way c)work d)addiction
88. Which word in the 2nd paragraph means “dependent on something”?
a) blackout b)addicted c)enjoy d) impatient
89. Which word in the 5th paragraph means “happiness and pleasure”?
a) security b) self-confidence
c) identity d) satisfaction
WHAT’S IN A NAME?
______________
Creap coffee creamer is a big seller inJapan, and Bimbo bread is extremely popular inMexico, but people in English-speaking countries would be unlikely to buy these products. Why? Because their names have unfortunate meanings in English. As companies go global, it is becoming increasingly important to find brand names that can travel from country to country.
According to Bridget Ruffell, a director of The Brand Naming Co., which specializes in creating brand names for clients, finding the right name for an international brand is expensive, time-consuming and full of difficulties. In addition to the problems of meaning and pronunciation, all names have to be legally registered, which involves long and expensive searches to make sure that they have not already been taken by another company.
Finding the right product name and avoiding the wrong ones is so important that The Brand Naming Co.has created a “black museum” of products with names that make them virtually non-sellable in English-speaking countries. For instance, there’s “Nuclear”, a brand of clothes whitener in Spain. The Brand Naming Co. also cautionedabout a Turkish cookie called “Bum” and a Mexican beer called “Nude”, although consumers inAnkara andMexico City told they had never heard of those products.
Companies from English-speaking countries that want to sell their products in non English-speaking countries also have a lot of problems finding good product names. The sounds R and L, for instance, are often confused among some speakers of Asian languages. Jonathan Mercer, managing director of Brand Guardians, a firm that specializes in creating brand names, said companies have to be careful to avoid names with unsuitable meanings.
One of the most famous stories about a brand-naming problem involves an American car. The marketing department of Chevrolet decided to name their new car “Nova”. They thought that they’d found a good name. “Nova” means “star” in Latin. However, in Spanish, the two words no va mean “doesn’t go”, which is not a very good name for a car.
There is more than one way to find a name for a new product. Sometimes, to avoid the problems that choosing a real word might cause, companies actually make up a word that (they hope) does not exist in any language. One very successful made up name is “Kodak”. It was chosen because it is pronounceable by people who speak many different languages. However, even when a company invents a name, it can still have name problems. For example, a number of years ago, Esso Oil Company wanted a new name for their gasoline that would be acceptable all over the world. After spending a lot of time and even more money, they came up with “Exxon”. Unfortunately, itdidn’t work well inJapan. The Japanese pronounce it “Eki-son”, which sounds like the Japanese phrase meaning “loss of profit”.
Because English is now a global language, companies sometimes choose to use simple English words that describe their new product. A well-known example of this kind of naming technique is the “Walkman”. The Sony Company chose this name for its personal stereo because it describes the product- you can use it to walk and listen to music at the same time.
It can take a long time to find the right name for a new product. First, a company hires a group of creative people to brainstorm a list of possible names. This list may have as many as 100 names on it. Then they often ask consumers to choose the names that they like the best. This technique can have surprising results. A few years ago a French publishing company was going to publish a new series of English-Language text books. Until they could think of a name for the series, they called it “Method Orange” (like calling a product “Brand X). When the publishers sent their list of possible names to consumers, one of them added this name to the list. To everyone’s surprise, it was the most popular name chosen by the consumers, and the series “MethodOrange” was born.
When a company has found a name that consumers seem to like, the naming process is still not over. They must then research the name to make sure that it is not the name of another product. They usually choose the best three or four names so that they can be certain of finding one that works. This research takes a long time because each name must be researched in every country. For example, if you wanted to name a laundry detergent “Fresh”, in addition to searching the names of laundry soap in each country, you would also have to look at the names of other types of products that you think might have that name. A search can cost $500 per name per country.
90. According to the text, deciding on the suitable name for an international brand___
a) takes a lot of time and money
b) is only handled by brand naming companies
c) requires company managers to travel from country to country
d) involves short and cheap searches
91.“Black museum” mentioned in paragraph 3 is probably …
a) the name of a brand naming company
b) the list of products which do not sell much because of their names
c) the group of products which sell a lot in English-speaking countries
d) a museum inEnglandwhich exhibits products with unsuitable names
92. Which of the following brand names does not have a good meaning in English?
a) Nova b) Exxon c) MethodOrange d) Bum
93. The example of the brand name “Exxon” , which was invented by
Esso Oil Company, shows that___
a) selling of gasoline does not provide high profits in far eastern countries likeJapan
b) choosing simple brand names can be very effective in advertising
c) even when a brand name is made up, it can still cause problems
d) having an invented brand name avoids all the problems in naming a product
94. Which of the following is not one of the steps that companies go through to name a product?
a) checking some English-language text books with a list of brand names
b) employing people with creative ideas
c) getting the consumers’ ideas about their favorite names
d) making sure that they are not using the name of another product
95. We can infer from paragraph 8 that ____
a) A simple English phrase can make an effective product
b) Some products may have negative meanings in English
c) The best way to name a product is to make up a new name
d) Orange language text books attract the English learners more
96. What is the main idea of this text?
a) There is more than one way to find a name for a new product
b) Choosing the right name for an international product is expensive, time-consuming
and difficult
c) Because English is a global language, it is better to choose simple English names for
products
d) English speaking countries do not want to buy the products whose names have a
negative meaning
97. “they” in paragraph 2 refers to…
a) companies b) long and expensive searches c) names d) meaning and pronunciation
98. “it” in paragraph 6 refers to…
a) the name “Exxon” b) gasoline c) Esso Oil Company d) the name “Eki-son”
99. “caution” in paragraph 3 most probably means …
a) announce b) create c) warn d) advertise
100. “hire” in paragraph 8 probably means…
a) chose b) call c) employ
